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#387167 - 07/04/05 08:30 AM OT - correct grammar
LiveMusic
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Just he and his guitar

Just him and his guitar

Which one is correct?
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#387168 - 07/04/05 08:48 AM Re: OT - correct grammar
force
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He and his guitar showed up...

It was just him and his guitar...

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#387169 - 07/04/05 09:13 AM Re: OT - correct grammar
LiveMusic
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Hey, you're pretty good! I thought it was "just him and his guitar" but I saw this in a venue newsletter.
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#387170 - 07/04/05 01:22 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Fendercaster
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Yeah, I seen that, too! \:D
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#387171 - 07/04/05 02:58 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
theblue1
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Quote:
Originally posted by LiveMusic:
Just he and his guitar

Just him and his guitar

Which one is correct?
It depends on how you're using it.

If the clause is the object of the sentence...

"The train ran over him and his guitar."

If the clause is the subject...

"He and his guitar went out for a walk along the railroad."


And, finally, though common usage favors "him" in this case, the proper form when there is a verb of "equivalence"...

"It was he and his guitar that caused the trainwreck."

(This is similiar to the rather stuffy but correct usage: "It is I." as opposed to the 'easier-on-the-ear' but not actually, technically correct "It is me." If you're writing a formal essay, stick with the correct but stuffy usage. If you're writing a letter to a friend, use whatever one works for you.)

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#387172 - 07/04/05 03:03 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
theblue1
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Quote:
Originally posted by LiveMusic:
Hey, you're pretty good! I thought it was "just him and his guitar" but I saw this in a venue newsletter.
One should not, as a rule, take nightclub or concert venue newsletters as exemplars of good grammar.

If so, in many areas, you'll find yourself wondering about the proper use of "deze" and "doze."

As in: "Dese are duh scumbags what tried to sneak in duh backdoor. You want I should break doze legs of dere's, Big Louie?"


Or, wait... should dat be "dem legs"...?

\:D

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#387173 - 07/04/05 05:11 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
blackpig
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It all depends on the correct utilisation of active and passive voice. For example, "John shot the dog." is active voice. But "The dog shot John." is passive voice. Or something like that.
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#387174 - 07/04/05 05:54 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
LiveMusic
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Heck, all you changed was who shot who.

Whom shot whom?

Passive voice would be "The dog was shot by John." Maybe. I dunno. I don't care. I want to know about him and his guitar. You Irishmen are no help. Are you drunk? ;\)
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#387175 - 07/04/05 05:57 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
paully
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Quote:
Originally posted by theblue1:
[QUOTE]Originally posted by LiveMusic:
[qb]
If so, in many areas, you'll find yourself wondering about the proper use of "deze" and "doze."

As in: "Dese are duh scumbags what tried to sneak in duh backdoor. You want I should break doze legs of dere's, Big Louie?"


Or, wait... should dat be "dem legs"...?

\:D
>>>>>>>>

Hey yo.. Blue guy.. stay da fock out a fockin' Joisey.

Big Louie \:D \:D
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#387176 - 07/05/05 05:08 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
theblue1
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Who shot whom?

Whom is the object.

Who is who?

Who (2) is equivalent to the subject, who (1).

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#387177 - 07/05/05 05:17 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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Quote:
Originally posted by blackpig:
It all depends on the correct utilisation of active and passive voice. For example, "John shot the dog." is active voice. But "The dog shot John." is passive voice. Or something like that.
Um, that's not quite it. What Blue1 said above reveals what is correct regarding pronouns and nouns: subject vs. predicate noun/pronoun.

Actually you don't have any passive-voice illustration in your examples. Passive would be "The dog was shot by John." Make sense?

Whom is an object, a predicate pronoun form. You'd use it anytime you'd use him or her.

Who is a subject pronoun form. You'd use it anytime you'd use he or she.
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#387178 - 07/05/05 05:18 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
fantasticsound
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If I may borrow force's example:

Quote:
Originally posted by force:
He and his guitar showed up...

It was just him and his guitar...
He showed up.

It was him.

Try reversing them;

Him showed up. (Only works for Dom DeLouise talking about his alter ego, "Captain Chaos!" in Cannonball Run. \:D )

It was he (I know this sounds like it might be right, but would you turn to the cop, point at the suspect and yell, "It was HE!". Not if you want to use correct grammar. ;\) )
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#387179 - 07/05/05 05:24 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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Quote:
Originally posted by fantasticsound:
It was he (I know this sounds like it might be right, but would you turn to the cop, point at the suspect and yell, "It was HE!". Not if you want to use correct grammar. ;\) )
ooh, this is fun! \:D Actually, I'm afraid that "It was he" is actually correct grammar; but we never say this! It's one of those exceptions: when answering the phone, and someone says, "is Neil home?" what to you say?

"this is he," or "this is him". Guess what? "This is he" is correct! Maddening, I know.

Consider Blue1's example/explanation RE: "who is who":

Who (2) is equivalent to the subject, who (1).

The other one that causes me nightmares is, "if I were you ..." but that isn't proper if "you" is not the predicate from what I know (in other words, "if I were her" is not correct, but "if I was her" is, because correct conjugation is "you were, she was ...")

Blue1, buddy, my comrade in all things grammar: help me out here. What is up with these exceptions? Or did I get any wrong? Any insight??
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#387180 - 07/05/05 11:05 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
TrancedelicBlues
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Well, I don't meant to be tiresome, but a guitar is an inanimate object, not capable of "showing up" on its own. That's why that sentence seems so weird.

It would be more correct to say "He showed up with his guitar"

Hope this helps...

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#387181 - 07/06/05 12:23 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
blackpig
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"The dog was shot by John." This is passive voice and is quite correct. "John was shot by the dog" is also passive but is quite impossible and therefore cannot be considered correct English. I do know a man who was shot by a fish (it's a long story). Yes, I am slightly inebriated. Burp etc.
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#387182 - 07/06/05 12:56 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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Quote:
Originally posted by blackpig:
"The dog was shot by John." This is passive voice and is quite correct. "John was shot by the dog" is also passive but is quite impossible and therefore cannot be considered correct English. I do know a man who was shot by a fish (it's a long story). Yes, I am slightly inebriated. Burp etc.
Correct, that is passive voice ... but your first post wasn't: "John shot the dog/the dog shot John" ... you know that, right?
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#387183 - 07/06/05 02:51 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
John O. Lennon
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Quote:
Originally posted by geekgurl:
Quote:
Originally posted by fantasticsound:
It was he (I know this sounds like it might be right, but would you turn to the cop, point at the suspect and yell, "It was HE!". Not if you want to use correct grammar. ;\) )
ooh, this is fun! \:D Actually, I'm afraid that "It was he" is actually correct grammar; but we never say this!.....
Sorry, but Neil (FSound) iscorrect.
A lotta the debate here is focused on the wrong ideas; it's not active/passive, subject/object etc.
The principle here is the same as when combining individuals into a group pronoun: you take out the extra person/item & test the sentence as it would be with just one subject & that's the "correct" term to use.

People that use "he" in this example ---while I mean no offence---are opting for what they percieve as the "refined" mode of speech but their doing what's called in some quarters "inflating" the language.
That's like when someone calls themselves "myself" rather than "me" or the way 19th C. orators would add syllables into words to make them more impressive.

If someone thinks they are a real master grammatician, here's a question:
What's the proper way to pronounce extensions of words from other languages, with their own, different rules?
Ponder the common ways these words are spoken: "photograph", "photographic", "photography".
Why the shift in emphasis? A case of people mis-applying the rules of one language to the grammar. There's no reason, in English, to shift the emphasis; in fact, it's quite illogical to do so. The emphasis should remain on the first syllable...but who actually pronounces them so?

Ultimately we must recall, however, that, like music, languages are constantly evolving (or at least changing \:D ) &, as with music theory, the "rules" are malleable & need to focus on communicating the thoughts rather than slavishly fitting some abstracted idea.

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#387184 - 07/07/05 02:06 AM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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John O., should I believe you or my English teacher?

RE: "this is he" vs. "this is him" ... This has nothing to do with active/passive nor a social "we" and I never said it did on either count. It has to to with what Blue1's example shown in his post, the structure of that particular sentence ("X is X"). I truly don't think this is "inflated speech" at all, but that there is a rule behind it. And that's what I'm trying to find. Anyone??

Your question below that about extensions is a linguistics question, not a grammar question.

And incase you're wondering who the heck I think I am, well, I am a "professional-level" grammarian; doesn't mean I'm not wrong sometimes, but I do earn part of my living from my training and experience in this field.

John says: "Ultimqately we must recall, however, that, like music, languages are constantly evolving (or at least changing ) &, as with music theory, the "rules" are malleable & need to focus on communicating the thoughts rather than slavishly fitting some abstracted idea. "

In this light, your bringing up "myself" vs. "me" is interesting. Mainly rules of usage are malleable; of structure, not so much. Reflexive pronouns have uses that have been deemed unpopular usage, though not necessarily improper. Are you saying because it's no longer in fashion that a grammatically correct use should be deemed wrong? Webster's dictionary actually has a very interesting commentary on that if you're interested.

Otherwise, I'm sure we've lost most people to an abyss of boredom, where this is going. Sorry about that, if it's true, all.
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#387185 - 07/07/05 08:51 AM Re: OT - correct grammar
Dan South
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Hmm. I was just thinking of a grammar question, and now I can't recall it. Or, passively, now the question cannot be recalled by me.

\:D

But here's one. What's the difference between toward and towards? It towards simply a colloquialism?

---> The dog edged toward the intruder as the intruder moved towards acute colonic breakdown.

How about afterward and afterwards? Is there a difference? Are they equivalent?

And how about some of those obscure past participles?

---> I swam across the river this morning. My friend Mary has swum it many times.

---> I drank the two shots that she bought for me. I had drunk too much already.
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#387186 - 07/07/05 12:05 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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OK, ONE MORE, BECAUSE I LOVE YOU GUYS!


We “professional” grammarians tend to use our judgment as to whether to “enforce” a rule in publication when we know it is unpopular. In the offices I work at, we will usually reword something to avoid seeming stilted or being wrong. Very few grammatically controversial passages have to stay as is; there is almost always a way to rewrite to avoid the problem. When we quote someone directly, we sometimes fix minor grammar issues, but if we were publishing part of a dialogue where the subject said, “This is him,” you know, we’d probably leave it. And we don’t use “[sic]” to indicate that we know someone is incorrect; that’s petty and condescending and generally not done.

Anyway, I insist that the “real” rules are good for everyone to know. Doesn’t mean you can’t break them; but know when you are breaking them and why. I have a big, big tolerance for bad grammar; I never correct anyone’s speech (and I hate when others do that!), and in informal communications like this forum, I don’t point out grammar faux pas (unless it’s the very point of discussion, as with this thread). In fact, I commit my share of sloppy punctuation and typos here, and let myself slide. But where it becomes a troubling indicator of the public’s knowledge is when my “slop” is better than many native-English speakers’ best efforts.

So here is a good article about “prescriptive” grammar as it can ruin the effectiveness of voice user interfaces (article is for designers of those systems). It’s good because it points to the more esoteric rules and examples that are correct, but discusses why they are arcane. In other words, as I have been saying here, they are correct, but unpopular.

http://www.speechtechmag.com/issues/7_6/cover/1473-1.html

Here’s eHow’s guide to good grammar. I’d argue, don’t bother changing your use of “whom” or how you answer phone, but this is a prescriptive take on what is correct. I don’t know who the author is, so can’t vouch for their (Oh no! improper pronoun! So sue me) authority:

http://www.ehow.com/how_117260_fix-improper-pronouns.html

If you think our little OT discussion is tedious, know that there are entire forums (forae, if you insist) dedicated to this stuff:

http://www.englishforums.com/English/YouKnowWhoButYouDontKnowWhy/bbjlx/Post.htm#91236

Sorry this is so long, but know I am only doing this because it is the one area besides music where I know a damn thing that can be useful to the masses. I have been blessed with a great journalistic career, first as a technology reporter/editor, then as a freelance copyeditor for consumer and trade publishing properties of one of this nation’s largest media companies (and I still hold one of these clients today), and finally as author of my own little niche book on music theory. I’m just spreading the love, people.
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#387187 - 07/07/05 12:20 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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Hi Dan!

Quote:
Originally posted by Dan South:
What's the difference between toward and towards? It towards simply a colloquialism?
Both words are acceptable to use. I don't have my Chicago manual handy cuz I ain't at the office, but if I recall, there is a shift away from "towards," which I believe has been relegated to colloquial use. I believe that is the reason we have adopted in our in-house style guide to only use "toward."

Quote:
Originally posted by Dan South:
How about afterward and afterwards? Is there a difference? Are they equivalent?
Same principle. Both are correct. I can't recall our in-print policy on which is preferred at the moment.

Quote:
Originally posted by Dan South:
And how about some of those obscure past participles?

---> I swam across the river this morning. My friend Mary has swum it many times.

---> I drank the two shots that she bought for me. I had drunk too much already.
It's still considered incorrect to improperly conjugate these verbs as far as I know.
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#387188 - 07/07/05 06:51 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
blackpig
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My own pet hate is the superfluous apostrophe - "book's for sale", "car's going cheap", that sort of thing. I can't really figure out what's going on here; it seems that people are giving themselves extra work in communicating by making the langauge more cumbersome. It's one thing for a language to evolve through convenience (look at how unwieldy English from a century ago appears by today's standards) but language should never be allowed to evolve through ignorance.
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#387189 - 07/07/05 09:16 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Dan South
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Quote:
Originally posted by geekgurl:
In the offices I work at
:D
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#387190 - 07/08/05 11:46 AM Re: OT - correct grammar
Geekgurl
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Dan, dangling prepositions and I have a special relationship. ;\)
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#387191 - 07/08/05 12:44 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
Brittanylips
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Quote:
Originally posted by blackpig:
My own pet hate is the superfluous apostrophe - "book's for sale", "car's going cheap", that sort of thing. I can't really figure out what's going on here; it seems that people are giving themselves extra work in communicating by making the langauge more cumbersome. It's one thing for a language to evolve through convenience (look at how unwieldy English from a century ago appears by today's standards) but language should never be allowed to evolve through ignorance.
I take it you've read "Eats, Shoots, and Leaves"?

-PLB

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#387192 - 07/08/05 01:44 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
John O. Lennon
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Quote:
Originally posted by geekgurl:
John O., should I believe you or my English teacher?
Oh, definitely your teacher---nothing you learn in school could be wrong...
Believe me (or, if you prefer, myself ;\) ), because I too am well versed in the intricacies of language. A pro writer for years w/ a BA in English (really useful, that! ;\) )...but let's not try to best one another.
People disagree & things do change in languages regularly. They evolve along the lines of how people actually speak, even when those uses are considered incorrect by prior standards.
A speaker of Old English would hardly know what was being said by people on the streets of London today---& not just because of new words; even the words they used would be enunciated differently & in many cases used differently.
A similar thing happens with the sound/enunciation of words. Note how speakers in the USA have shifted to giving the letter "o" a sound that's like a short "a". Every night I hear news anchors, etc. (& we'd guess they are coached in "proper" speech), refer to the states of Aregon (located N of California) or Flarida. Oddly the second "o" in Aregon remains unaltered or sounds like an "e" or "i".

RE: "this is he" vs. "this is him" ... This has nothing to do with active/passive nor a social "we" and I never said it did on either count.
True but others mentioned various things of those sorts.

It has to to with what Blue1's example shown in his post, the structure of that particular sentence ("X is X"). I truly don't think this is "inflated speech" at all, but that there is a rule behind it. And that's what I'm trying to find. Anyone??
As before, the priciple in this case would be as I described: test it in the same way as any other grouping of nouns/pronouns; the one that sounds best (or is most clear) alone is the way to go.

Your question below that about extensions is a linguistics question, not a grammar question. A minor quibble. Linguistics, grammar, semantics...all are intertwined .

And incase you're wondering who the heck I think I am, well, I am a "professional-level" grammarian; doesn't mean I'm not wrong sometimes, but I do earn part of my living from my training and experience in this field.

John says: "Ultimately we must recall, however, that, like music, languages are constantly evolving (or at least changing ) &, as with music theory, the "rules" are malleable & need to focus on communicating the thoughts rather than slavishly fitting some abstracted idea. "

In this light, your bringing up "myself" vs. "me" is interesting. Mainly rules of usage are malleable; of structure, not so much.

Here I must disagree. The structural rules of one language are often adapted by those learning a new one (like emigrants learning English in NYC) & often then become commonplaces in that tongue as they spread.
Besides the example of Latin pronunciation rules being reinterpreted by speakers of English & applied to newly coined words that I cited ("photograph" extensions being given varied syllabic accents), consider how placement of active/passive clauses vary in, for ex., Spanish or French or Yiddish compared to English & how these influences drift into common usage for English.
If you're familiar w/ the Gullah dialects of the SE USA, (which are the roots of what's referred to as "Black English"), you can see exactly what I mean.
Language structures from one language are transferred because because people, though learning new languages, are still thinking in their old language & follow the grammatic practices they've used all their lives.

Reflexive pronouns have uses that have been deemed unpopular usage, though not necessarily improper. Are you saying because it's no longer in fashion that a grammatically correct use should be deemed wrong? Webster's dictionary actually has a very interesting commentary on that if you're interested.
Although I have my own preferences[*], I long ago gave up on the idea that there're any unalterable principles in language, in the same way that Western music theory is not the same as the in 15th C. (or even as it was only 100 years ago).


Otherwise, I'm sure we've lost most people to an abyss of boredom, where this is going. Sorry about that, if it's true, all.
:D

Anyhow, as said, I really find whatever communicates effectively to be the goal.
--------------------------------------------
[*] Here's one that I really dislike: Two very effective & useful terms ("affect" & effect") have virtually vanished in just a couple decades because people have adopted, quite incorrectly, the term "impact" rather than either of those words. Impact is a term for physical contact (impacted tooth, meteor impact, etc.).
My skin literally tenses when I hear that "This policy change will impact users...".
What?
It's gonna smack 'em aside their heads?!
However, the world rolls on...

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#387193 - 07/08/05 02:00 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
blackpig
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I havn't read "Eats, Shoots and Leaves" but I have glanced through it. While we're at it, a pub I used to gig in had a beautiful hand painted sign on one of the roof beams. It extolled the virtues of drinking "Guinness'ss Stout And Bass'ss Ale."
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#387194 - 07/08/05 02:28 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
John O. Lennon
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Quote:
Originally posted by John O. Lennon:

However, the world rolls on...
I suppose, for correctness's sake, I should state that, rather than rolling, the world's really spinning...I suspect that's why we're all getting a bit dizzy.

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#387195 - 07/08/05 03:05 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
theblue1
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Quote:
Originally posted by geekgurl:
Quote:
Originally posted by fantasticsound:
It was he (I know this sounds like it might be right, but would you turn to the cop, point at the suspect and yell, "It was HE!". Not if you want to use correct grammar. ;\) )
ooh, this is fun! \:D Actually, I'm afraid that "It was he" is actually correct grammar; but we never say this! It's one of those exceptions: when answering the phone, and someone says, "is Neil home?" what to you say?

"this is he," or "this is him". Guess what? "This is he" is correct! Maddening, I know.

Consider Blue1's example/explanation RE: "who is who":

Who (2) is equivalent to the subject, who (1).

The other one that causes me nightmares is, "if I were you ..." but that isn't proper if "you" is not the predicate from what I know (in other words, "if I were her" is not correct, but "if I was her" is, because correct conjugation is "you were, she was ...")

Blue1, buddy, my comrade in all things grammar: help me out here. What is up with these exceptions? Or did I get any wrong? Any insight??
Ok... I'm gonna wing this one -- I'll try to look it up when I have a little more time.

I think your 'nightmare example' is not actually right, if I understand what you're getting at.

But what's trying to fool us here is that "were" is not a simple past tense... it's, what -- a conditional tense? -- that happens to be a homonym to the past tense... but that's a side issue, yeah?

I never took any comp classes in college or anything (back in my day you could "test out" of the comp requirements... I wrote a first hand essay on LSD and they just flew me right on through. (Maybe they wanted to keep me apart from the impressionable young minds in those comp classes.)


Anyhow, I'm gonna have to get back to this as I'd need to look it up to explain it properly (and, you know, make sure I was actually right). I'm absolutely helpless when it comes to remembering the names of grammatical forms, clauses, tenses, etc. Although I was a whiz in like 5th grade... I loved diagramming sentences 'cause it was so organized. Once you knew the rules... bam. Unfortunately, about that time I discovered girls and started forgetting grammatical rules...

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PS... with verbs of equivalence (is, am, are, etc) a quick and dirty test is to just turn the sentence around. You might be tempted to say "If you were me..." but you'd probably never say "If me were you..." ( Here\'s more info .)

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#387196 - 07/08/05 03:15 PM Re: OT - correct grammar
John O. Lennon
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Registered: 11/14/02
Posts: 384
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If someone calls me & asks, "Is that John?", I can say several things..."Yes."; "No."; "This is me"; "This is him."
All would be correct (if not accurate ;\) ) .
If I say, "This is he.", that's inflated language, an attempt to sound more refined but which has no logical basis.
The sort of thing said by people who extend their little finger as they sip from a teacup.
When I said, "I am he as you are me as etc...." that's only for the rhyme.

Don't think I'm trying to blow you out though, GGirl, because you're exactly right about that "if I were/was ..." thing!

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